olymmath

SCHWEITZER 1959 Problem 6

    Let TT be a one-to-one mapping of the unit square EE of the plane into itself. Suppose that TT and T−1T^{-1} are measure-preserving (i.e. if M⊆EM \subseteq E is a measurable set, then TMTM and T−1MT^{-1}M are also measurable and μ(M)=μ(TM)=μ(T−1M)\mu (M)= \mu (TM)= \mu (T^{-1}M) , where μ\mu denotes the Lebesgue measure) and, furthermore, that if Tx∈NTx \in N for almost all points xx of a measurable set N⊆EN \subseteq E , then either nn or E∖NE \setminus N is of measure 0. Prove that, for any measurable set A⊆EA \subseteq E , with μ(A)>0\mu (A)>0 , the function n(x)n(x) defined by n(x)={0,ifTkx∉A(k=1,2,… ),min⁡(k:Tkx∈A;k=1,2,… )otherwisen(x)=\begin{cases} 0, \text{if} T^k x \notin A (k=1, 2, \dots), \min (k: T^k x \in A; k=1,2, \dots ) &\text{otherwise} \end{cases} is measurable and ∫An(x)dμ(x)=1\int_{A}n(x) d\mu(x) =1 (R. 18)

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