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Putnam 1955 B6

  • Session B
  1. Prove: If f(x)>0f(x)>0 for all xx and f(x)→0f(x) \rightarrow 0 as x→∞x \rightarrow \infty, then there exists at most a finite number of solutions of f(m)+f(n)+f(p)=1f(m)+f(n)+f(p)=1 in positive integers m,nm, n, and pp.

Dataset text PutnamGAP. Quoted with source.

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