olymmath

USAJMO 2025 Problem 1

  • Day 1

Let Z\mathbb Z be the set of integers, and let f ⁣:Z→Zf\colon \mathbb Z \to \mathbb Z be a function. Prove that there are infinitely many integers cc such that the function g ⁣:Z→Zg\colon \mathbb Z \to \mathbb Z defined by g(x)=f(x)+cxg(x) = f(x) + cx is not bijective. Note: A function g ⁣:Z→Zg\colon \mathbb Z \to \mathbb Z is bijective if for every integer bb , there exists exactly one integer aa such that g(a)=bg(a) = b .

Dataset text AI-MO AoPS. Quoted with source.

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