SEEMOUS 2014 Problem 4

a) Prove that $\lim_{n\to\infty}n\int^n_0\frac{\operatorname{arctan}\frac xn}{x(x^2+1)}dx=\frac\pi2$ . b) Find the limit $\lim_{n\to\infty}n\left(m\int^n_0\frac{\operatorname{arctan}\frac xn}{x(x^2+1)}dx-\frac\pi2\right)$ .