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SCHWEITZER 1978 Problem 6

    Suppose that the function g:(0,1)→Rg : (0,1) \rightarrow \mathbb{R} can be uniformly approximated by polynomials with nonnegative coefficients. Prove that gg must be analytic. Is the statement also true for the interval (−1,0)(-1,0) instead of (0,1)(0,1) ?

    J. Kalina, L. Lempert

    Dataset text AI-MO AoPS. Quoted with source.

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