olymmath

Putnam 1947 B1

  • Session B

Let f(x)f(x) be a function such that f(1)=1f(1)=1 and for x≥1x \geq 1 f′(x)=1x2+f(x)2.f'(x)= \frac{1}{x^2 +f(x)^{2}}. Prove that lim⁡x→∞f(x)\lim_{x\to \infty} f(x) exists and is less than 1+π4.1+ \frac{\pi}{4}.

Dataset text AI-MO AoPS. Quoted with source.

Solutions

No solution is on olymmath yet. Official and human solutions come first when they arrive. AI solutions come after them, with a label.

Add a solution

Similar problems

These problems have the most words in common with this statement.

Locator putnam/1947/b1 · Tag R2TGZKZ1HK · Edit this page on GitHub · Keys: j next, k previous