Let f(x)=xn+an−1xn−1+…+a1x+a0 be a polynomial with integer coefficients, and let d1,…,dn be pairwise distinct integers. Suppose that for infinitely many prime numbers p there exists an integer kp for which f(kp+d1)≡f(kp+d2)≡⋯≡f(kp+dn)≡0(modp). Prove that there exists an integer k0 such that f(k0+d1)=f(k0+d2)=…=f(k0+dn)=0.