olymmath

KöMaL 2011 A525

    Let f(x)=xn+an−1xn−1+…+a1x+a0f(x)=x^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1} +\ldots+a_1x+a_0 be a polynomial with integer coefficients, and let d1,…,dnd_1,\ldots,d_n be pairwise distinct integers. Suppose that for infinitely many prime numbers pp there exists an integer kpk_p for which f(kp+d1)≡f(kp+d2)≡⋯≡f(kp+dn)≡0(modp).f(k_p+d_1)\equiv f(k_p+d_2)\equiv\dots\equiv f(k_p+d_n)\equiv0\pmod{p}. Prove that there exists an integer k0k_0 such that f(k0+d1)=f(k0+d2)=…=f(k0+dn)=0.f(k_0+d_1)=f(k_0+d_2)=\ldots=f(k_0+d_n)=0.

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