olymmath

BG-MO 2001 Problem 3

    Let pp be a prime number congruent to 33 modulo 44 , and consider the equation (p+2)x2−(p+1)y2+px+(p+2)y=1(p+2)x^{2}-(p+1)y^{2}+px+(p+2)y=1 . Prove that this equation has infinitely many solutions in positive integers, and show that if (x,y)=(x0,y0)(x,y) = (x_{0}, y_{0}) is a solution of the equation in positive integers, then p∣x0p | x_{0} .

    Dataset text AI-MO AoPS. Quoted with source.

    Solutions

    No solution is on olymmath yet. Official and human solutions come first when they arrive. AI solutions come after them, with a label.

    Add a solution

    Similar problems

    These problems have the most words in common with this statement.

    Locator bg-mo/2001/p3 · Tag M6MAEJ2G3P · Edit this page on GitHub · Keys: j next, k previous