olymmath

Putnam 2017 A2

  • Session A

Let Q0(x)=1Q_0(x) = 1, Q1(x)=xQ_1(x) = x, and Qn(x)=(Qn−1(x))2−1Qn−2(x)Q_n(x) = \frac{(Q_{n-1}(x))^2 - 1}{Q_{n-2}(x)} for all n≥2n \geq 2. Show that, whenever nn is a positive integer, Qn(x)Q_n(x) is equal to a polynomial with integer coefficients.

Curated text Kedlaya Putnam archive. Quoted with source.

Solutions

Human solution Solution 1 by Kiran Kedlaya and Lenny Ng

The terms of the source let olymmath link to this solution but not copy it. Read the solution (Kedlaya Putnam archive).

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