olymmath

Putnam 2010 B5

  • Session B

Is there a strictly increasing function f:R→Rf: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R} such that f′(x)=f(f(x))f'(x) = f(f(x)) for all xx?

Curated text Kedlaya Putnam archive. Quoted with source.

Solutions

Human solution Solution 1 by Kiran Kedlaya and Lenny Ng

The terms of the source let olymmath link to this solution but not copy it. Read the solution (Kedlaya Putnam archive).

Locator putnam/2010/b5 · Tag 802AHGC7P3 · Edit this page on GitHub · Keys: j next, k previous