olymmath

Putnam 2002 A6

  • Session A

Fix an integer b≥2b \geq 2. Let f(1)=1f(1) = 1, f(2)=2f(2) = 2, and for each n≥3n \geq 3, define f(n)=nf(d)f(n) = n f(d), where dd is the number of base-bb digits of nn. For which values of bb does ∑n=1∞1f(n)\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{f(n)} converge?

Curated text Kedlaya Putnam archive. Quoted with source.

Solutions

Human solution Solution 1 by Kiran Kedlaya and Lenny Ng

The terms of the source let olymmath link to this solution but not copy it. Read the solution (Kedlaya Putnam archive).

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