olymmath

Putnam 2000 A6

  • Session A

Let f(x)f(x) be a polynomial with integer coefficients. Define a sequence a0,a1,…a_0,a_1,\ldots of integers such that a0=0a_0=0 and an+1=f(an)a_{n+1}=f(a_n) for all n≥0n\geq 0. Prove that if there exists a positive integer mm for which am=0a_m=0 then either a1=0a_1=0 or a2=0a_2=0.

Curated text Kedlaya Putnam archive. Quoted with source.

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