olymmath

Putnam 1992 A1

  • Session A

Prove that f(n)=1−nf(n) = 1-n is the only integer-valued function defined on the integers that satisfies the following conditions.

(i) f(f(n))=nf(f(n)) = n, for all integers nn;

(ii) f(f(n+2)+2)=nf(f(n+2)+2) = n for all integers nn;

(iii) f(0)=1f(0) = 1.

Curated text Kedlaya Putnam archive. Quoted with source.

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